I am an owner of a gold shop and have heard that it is not permissible to sell gold on a delayed payment basis. Thus, if I were to buy new gold at an old price with an immediate, mutual transaction and I paid the price, and we agreed that the remaining amount, that is, the difference between the old and new prices, will be after exchange, then would this exchange be lawful? Sometimes we give the distributor the equivalent of the weight of the gold, and we agree that the difference, which we call ‘workmanship cost,’ will be paid later.